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QUESTION 51
Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?
A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
B. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
C. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made.
D. Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
Which network protocol does DNS use?
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. SCP
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
When two hosts are trying to communicate across a network, how does the host originating the communication determine the hardware address of the host that it wants to “talk” to?
A. RARP request
B. Show Network Address request
C. Proxy ARP request
D. ARP request
E. Show Hardware Address request
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
When a host transmits data across a network to another host, which process does the data go through?
A. standardization
B. conversion
C. encapsulation
D. synchronization
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
An administrator attempts a traceroute but receives a “Destination Unreadable” message. Which protocol is responsible for that message?
A. RARP
B. RUDP
C. ICMP D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
When you are logged into a switch, which prompt indicates that you are in privileged mode?
A. %
B. @
C. >
D. $
E. #
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which command shows system hardware and software version information?
A. show configuration
B. show environment
C. show inventory
D. show platform
E. show version
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Which command would correctly configure a serial port on a router with the last usable host address in the 192.216.32.32/29 subnet?
A. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.38 255.255.255.240
B. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.39 255.255.255.224
C. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.63 255.255.255.248
D. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.39 255.255.255.248
E. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.63 255.255.255.248
F. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.38 255.255.255.248

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
The network default gateway applying to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/28. Which option is the valid IP address of this host?
A. 192.168.5.55
B. 192.168.5.47
C. 192.168.5.40
D. 192.168.5.32
E. 192.168.5.14
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam C
QUESTION 1
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What are three basic parameters to configure on a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. RTS/CTS
C. AES-CCMP
D. TKIP/MIC
E. RF channel
F. authentication method
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Choose two.)
A. The switch must be configured with an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
B. The switch must be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk.
C. The switch must be reachable through a port connected to its management VLAN.
D. The switch console port must be connected to the Ethernet LAN.
E. The switch management VLAN must be created and have a membership of at least one switch port.
F. The switch must be fully configured as an SNMP agent.
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that can be routed across the public Internet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.172.13.65
B. 172.16.223.125
C. 172.64.12.29
D. 192.168.23.252
E. 198.234.12.95
F. 212.193.48.254
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three.)
A. 15.234.118.63
B. 92.11.178.93
C. 134.178.18.56
D. 192.168.16.87
E. 201.45.116.159
F. 217.63.12.192
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E. winipcfg
F. show interfaces
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose two.)
A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge.
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)
A. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
B. Broadcasts are eliminated.
C. Routers generally cost less than switches.
D. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.
E. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
E. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Use the output from the router shown in the graphic above to determine which of the following are correct. (Choose two.)

A. Router John uses a link-state routing protocol.
B. Router John will receive routing updates on the Serial0/0 interface.
C. Router John will receive routing updates on the Serial0/1 interface.
D. Router John will send routing updates out the Serial0/0 interface.
E. Router John will send routing updates out the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
F. Router John will send routing updates out the Serial0/1 interface.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
Given the address 192.168.20.19/28, which of the following are valid host addresses on this subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.20.29
B. 192.168.20.16
C. 192.168.20.17
D. 192.168.20.31
E. 192.168.20.0
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
An inbound access list has been configured on a serial interface to deny packet entry for TCP and UDP ports 21, 23 and 25. What types of packets will be permitted by this ACL? (Choose three.)
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. SMTP
D. DNS
E. HTTP
F. POP3
Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three.)
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.
C. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
The switches shown in the diagram, Core and Core2, are both Catalyst 2950s. The addressing scheme for each company site is as follows: Router Ethernet port – 1st usable address Core – 2nd usable address Core2 – 3rd usable address For this network, which of the following commands must be configured on Core2 to allow it to be managed remotely from any subnet on the network? (Choose three.)

A. Core2(config)# interface f0/0 Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.248
B. Core2(config)# interface vlan 1 Core2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.248
C. Core2(config)# line con 0 Core2(config-line)# password cisco
D. Core2(config)# line vty 0 4 Core2(config-line)# password cisco
E. Core2(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.9
F. Core2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.8
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
An administrator is unsuccessful in adding VLAN 50 to a switch. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator views the output of the show vtp status command, which is displayed in the graphic. What commands must be issued on this switch to add VLAN 50 to the database? (Choose two.)

A. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 50
B. Switch(vlan)# vtp server
C. Switch(config)# config-revision 20
D. Switch(config)# vlan 50 name Tech
E. Switch(vlan)# vlan 50
F. Switch(vlan)# switchport trunk vlan 50
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 28
Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22? (Choose three.)
A. 115.64.8.32
B. 115.64.7.64
C. 115.64.6.255
D. 115.64.3.255
E. 115.64.5.128
F. 115.64.12.128
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface

Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)
A. Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.
B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.
C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.
D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.
E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.
F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
A. packet switching
B. access layer security
C. path selection
D. VLAN membership assignment
E. bridging between LAN segments
F. microsegmentation of broadcast domains
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Which series of commands will configure router R1 for LAN-to-LAN communication with router R2? The enterprise network address is 192.1.1.0/24 and the routing protocol in use is RIP. (Choose three.)

A. R1(config)# interface ethernet 0 R1(config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.129 255.255.255.192 R1(config-if)# no shutdown
B. R1(config)# interface ethernet 0 R1(config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.97 255.255.255.192 R1(config-if)# no shutdown
C. R1(config)# interface serial 0 R1(config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.4 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# clock rate 56000
D. R1(config)# interface serial 0 R1(config-if)# ip address 192.1.1.6 255.255.255.252 R1(config-if)# no shutdown
E. R1(config)# router rip R1(config-router)# network 192.1.1.4 R1(config-router)# network 192.1.1.128
F. R1(config)# router rip R1(config-router)# version 2 R1(config-router)# network 192.1.1.0
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
At which layers of the OSI model do WANs operate? (Choose two.)
A. application layer
B. session layer
C. transport layer
D. network layer
E. datalink layer
F. physical layer
Correct Answer: EF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)

A. RIP v1
B. RIP v2
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
E. BGP
F. EIGRP

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Refer to the diagram. Which three statements describe the router port configuration and the switch port configuration as shown in the topology? (Choose three.)

A. The Router1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.
B. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.
C. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.
D. The Switch1 port connected to Router1 is configured as a trunking port.
E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.
F. The Switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.) Network 1 –
192.168.10.0 /26 Network 2 – 192.168.10.64 /27 Network 3 – 192.168.10.96 /27 Network 4 – 192.168.10.128 /30 Network 5 – 192.168.10.132 /30
A. RIP version 1
B. RIP version 2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the partial command output shown. Which two statements are correct regarding the router hardware? (Choose two.)

A. Total RAM size is 32 KB.
B. Total RAM size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
C. Total RAM size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
D. Flash size is 32 KB.
E. Flash size is 16384 KB (16 MB).
F. Flash size is 65536 KB (64 MB).
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
The Ethernet networks connected to router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for router R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1, according to this summary? (Choose two.)

A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)

A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three.)

A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2
B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9
C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3
D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4
E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8
F. Router – Fa 1/0
Correct Answer: ACD
Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination addresses will Host A use to send data to Host B? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch1
B. the IP address of Router1 Fa0/0
C. the IP address of HostB
D. the MAC address of Switch1
E. the MAC address of Router1 Fa0/0
F. the MAC address of HostB
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)
A. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
B. Switch1(config)# mac-address-table secure
C. Switch1(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host
D. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
E. Switch1(config-if)# ip access-group 10
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53
Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
What should be done prior to backing up an IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)
A. Make sure that the server can be reached across the network.
B. Check that authentication for TFTP access to the server is set.
C. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the IOS image.
D. Verify file naming and path requirements.
E. Make sure that the server can store binary files.
F. Adjust the TCP window size to speed up the transfer.
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
The network 172.25.0.0 has been divided into eight equal subnets. Which of the following IP addresses can be assigned to hosts in the third subnet if the ip subnet-zero command is configured on the router? (Choose three.)
A. 172.25.78.243
B. 172.25.98.16
C. 172.25.72.0
D. 172.25.94.255
E. 172.25.96.17
F. 172.25.100.16
Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Refer to the graphic. Host 1 cannot receive packets from Host 2. Assuming that RIP v1 is the routing protocol in use, what is wrong with the IP configuration information shown? (Choose two.)

A. The fa0/1 interface of router R2 has been assigned a broadcast address.
B. The fa0/1 network on router R2 overlaps with the LAN attached to R1.
C. Host 2 has been assigned the incorrect subnet mask.
D. Host 1 has been configured with the 255.255.248.0 subnet mask.
E. Host 2 on router R2 is on a different subnet than its gateway.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 58
What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)
A. to make VTP easier to implement
B. to isolate broadcast traffic
C. to increase the size of the collision domain
D. to allow more devices to connect to the network
E. to logically group hosts according to function
F. to increase network security
Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking Protocol? (Choose two.)
A. VTP allows routing between VLANs.
B. VTP allows a single switch port to carry information to more than one VLAN.
C. VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching loops.
D. VTP simplifies switch administration by allowing switches to automatically share VLAN configuration information.
E. VTP helps to limit configuration errors by keeping VLAN naming consistent across the VTP domain.
F. VTP enhances security by preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the VTP domain.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will ignore VTP summary advertisements.
B. The switch will forward VTP summary advertisements.
C. The switch will process VTP summary advertisements.
D. The switch will originate VTP summary advertisements.
E. The switch will create, modify and delete VLANs for the entire VTP domain.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A. ARP
B. CDP
C. DHCP
D. DNS
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is to send data to Host B. How will Router1 handle the data frame received from Host A? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address on the forwarding FastEthernet interface.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address of Host B.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of Host B.
E. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data frame out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What source MAC address and source IP address are contained in the frame as the frame leaves R2 destined for host B?

A. abcd.abcd.a001
B. abcd.abcd.b002
C. abcd.abcd.c003
D. 10.2.0.15
E. 10.0.64.1
F. 10.0.128.15
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam D
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three.)
A. Erase flash.
B. Restart the switch.
C. Delete the VLAN database.
D. Erase the running configuration.
E. Erase the startup configuration.
F. Modify the configuration register.
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The FMJ manufacturing company is concerned about unauthorized access to the Payroll Server. The Accounting1, CEO, Mgr1, and Mgr2 workstations should be the only computers with access to the Payroll Server. What two technologies should be implemented to help prevent unauthorized access to the server? (Choose two.)

A. access lists
B. encrypted router passwords
C. STP
D. VLANs
E. VTP
F. wireless LANs
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shut down Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. HDLC
B. Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. PPP
E. FDDI
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What can be determined from the line of show ip route output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The next routing update can be expected in 35 seconds.
B. The IP address 10.10.10.6 is configured on S0/1.
C. The IP address 10.10.10.8 is configured on S0/1.
D. This route is using the default administrative distance.
E. The 10.10.10.8 network is two hops away from this router.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26
D. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30
F. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0 /20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.31.17.4 /30
B. 172.31.51.16 /30
C. 172.31.64.0 /18
D. 172.31.80.0 /22
E. 172.31.92.0 /22
F. 172.31.192.0 /18
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants Switch3 to be the root bridge. What could be done to ensure Switch3 will be the root?

A. Configure the IP address on Switch3 to be higher than the IP addresses of Switch1 and Switch2.
B. Configure the priority value on Switch3 to be higher than the priority values of Switch 1 and Switch2.
C. Configure the BID on Switch3 to be lower than the BIDs of Switch1 and Switch2.
D. Configure the MAC address on Switch3 to be higher than the Switch1 and Switch2 MAC addresses.
E. Configure a loopback interface on Switch3 with an IP address lower than any IP address on Switch1 and Switch2.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Addresses within the range 10.10.10.0/24 are not being translated to the 1.128.0/16 range. Which command shows if 10.10.10.0/24 are allowed inside addresses?

A. debug ip nat
B. show access-list
C. show ip nat translation
D. show ip nat statistics
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which three options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose three.)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. HDLC
D. MPLS
E. L2TPv3
F. ATM
Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which WAN protocol is being used?

A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. Frame Relay
D. PPP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, what is the first step when performing a loopback test?
A. Set the encapsulation of the interface to HDLC.
B. Place the CSU/DSU in local-loop mode.
C. Enable local-loop mode on the DCE Frame Relay router.
D. Verify that the encapsulation is set to Frame Relay.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
A wireless client cannot connect to an 802.11b/g BSS with a b/g wireless card. The client section of the access point does not list any active WLAN clients. What is a possible reason for this?
A. The incorrect channel is configured on the client.
B. The client’s IP address is on the wrong subnet.
C. The client has an incorrect pre-shared key.
D. The SSID is configured incorrectly on the client.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which two features did WPAv1 add to address the inherent weaknesses found in WEP? (Choose two.)
A. a stronger encryption algorithm
B. key mixing using temporal keys
C. shared key authentication
D. a shorter initialization vector
E. per frame sequence counters
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two wireless encryption methods are based on the RC4 encryption algorithm? (Choose two.)
A. WEP
B. CCKM
C. AES
D. TKIP
E. CCMP
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of RIPv2? (Choose two.)
A. classful routing protocol
B. variable-length subnet masks
C. broadcast addressing
D. manual route summarization
E. uses SPF algorithm to compute path
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which two Ethernet fiber-optic modes support distances of greater than 550 meters?
A. 1000BASE-CX
B. 100BASE-FX
C. 1000BASE-LX
D. 1000BASE-SX
E. 1000BASE-ZX
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which command shows if an access list is assigned to an interface?
A. show ip interface [interface] access-lists
B. show ip access-lists interface [interface]
C. show ip interface [interface]
D. show ip access-lists [interface]
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. You are connected to the router as user Mike. Which command allows you to see output from the OSPF debug command?

A. terminal monitor
B. show debugging
C. show sessions
D. show ip ospf interface
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. If number 2 is selected from the setup script, what happens when the user runs setup from a privileged prompt?

A. Setup is additive and any changes will be added to the config script.
B. Setup effectively starts the configuration over as if the router was booted for the first time.
C. Setup will not run if an enable secret password exists on the router.
D. Setup will not run, because it is only viable when no configuration exists on the router.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Which (config-router) command will allow the network represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?

A. redistribute ethernet0
B. network ethernet0
C. redistribute 10.12.0.0
D. network 10.12.0.0
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be gathered from the output?

A. One router is running RIPv1.
B. RIP neighbor is 224.0.0.9.
C. The network contains a loop.
D. Network 10.10.1.0 is reachable.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. What type of connection would be supported by the cable diagram shown?

A. PC to router
B. PC to switch
C. server to router
D. router to router
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. What type of connection would be supported by the cable diagram shown?

A. PC to router
B. PC to switch
C. server to switch
D. switch to router
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the router from the console output?

A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

A. 192.168.1.2 is local to the router.
B. 192.168.3.1 is local to the router.
C. 192.168.1.2 will age out in less than 1 minute.
D. 192.168.3.1 has aged out and is marked for deletion.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would allow the translations to be created on the router?

A. ip nat pool mynats 1.1.128.1 1.1.135.254 prefix-length 19
B. ip nat outside mynats 1.1.128.1 1.1.135.254 prefix-length 19
C. ip nat pool mynats 1.1.128.1 1.1.135.254 prefix-length 18
D. ip nat outside mynats 1.1.128.1 1.1.135.254 prefix-length 18
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Which value will be configured for Default Gateway of the Local Area Connection?

A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.0.0.254
C. 192.223.129.0
D. 192.223.129.254
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A?

A. The IP address for Server A is a broadcast address.
B. The IP address for Workstation B is a subnet address.
C. The gateway for Workstation B is not on the same subnet.
D. The gateway for Server A is not on the same subnet.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. What does the (*) represent in the output?

A. Packet is destined for a local interface to the router.
B. Packet was translated, but no response was received from the distant device.
C. Packet was not translated, because no additional ports are available.
D. Packet was translated and fast switched to the destination.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. What command sequence will enable PAT from the inside to outside network?

A. (config) ip nat pool isp-net 1.2.4.2 netmask 255.255.255.0 overload
B. (config-if) ip nat outside overload
C. (config) ip nat inside source list 1 interface ethernet1 overload
D. (config-if) ip nat inside overload
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the Internet that is destined for
16.12.10 if the traffic is processed by this ACL?

A. Traffic will be dropped per line 30 of the ACL.
B. Traffic will be accepted per line 40 of the ACL.
C. Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the end of the ACL.
D. Traffic will be accepted, because the source address is not covered by the ACL.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 42
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect that the Router1 configuration has on devices in the 172.16.16.0 subnet when they try to connect to SVR-A using Telnet or SSH?

A. Devices will not be able to use Telnet or SSH.
B. Devices will be able to use SSH, but not Telnet.
C. Devices will be able to use Telnet, but not SSH.
D. Devices will be able to use Telnet and SSH.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 46
Which two addresses can be assigned to a host with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0? (Choose two.)
A. 113.10.4.0
B. 186.54.3.0
C. 175.33.3.255
D. 26.35.2.255
E. 17.35.36.0
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation’s IP stack by pinging the loopback address. Which address would you ping to perform this task?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 239.1.1.1
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
Workstation A has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.24/28. Workstation B has been assigned an IP address of 192.0.2.100/28. The two workstations are connected with a straight-through cable. Attempts to ping between the hosts are unsuccessful. What two things can be done to allow communications between the hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable.
B. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25.
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26.
D. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15.
E. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Your ISP has given you the address 223.5.14.6/29 to assign to your router’s interface. They have also given you the default gateway address of 223.5.14.7. After you have configured the address, the router is unable to ping any remote devices. What is preventing the router from pinging remote devices?
A. The default gateway is not an address on this subnet.
B. The default gateway is the broadcast address for this subnet.
C. The IP address is the broadcast address for this subnet.
D. The IP address is an invalid class D multicast address.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
Which command is used to copy the configuration from RAM into NVRAM?
A. copy running-config: startup-config
B. copy startup-config: running-config:
C. copy running config startup config
D. copy startup config running config
E. write terminal
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Which command is used to load a configuration from a TFTP server and merge the configuration into RAM?
A. copy running-config: TFTP:
B. copy TFTP: running-config
C. copy TFTP: startup-config
D. copy startup-config: TFTP:
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
A system administrator types the command to change the hostname of a router. Where on the Cisco IFS is that change stored?
A. NVRAM
B. RAM
C. FLASH
D. ROM
E. PCMCIA
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
Which command is used to configure a default route?
A. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Which command is used to see the path taken by packets across an IP network?
A. show ip route
B. show route
C. traceroute
D. trace ip route
Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 57
Which command is used to debug a ping command?
A. debug icmp
B. debug ip icmp
C. debug tcp
D. debug packet
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
When configuring a serial interface on a router, what is the default encapsulation?
A. atm-dxi
B. frame-relay
C. hdlc
D. lapb
E. ppp
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 60
What must be set correctly when configuring a serial interface so that higher-level protocols calculate the best route?
A. bandwidth
B. delay
C. load
D. reliability
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
A company implements video conferencing over IP on their Ethernet LAN. The users notice that the network slows down, and the video either stutters or fails completely. What is the most likely reason for this?
A. minimum cell rate (MCR)
B. quality of service (QoS)
C. modulation
D. packet switching exchange (PSE)
E. reliable transport protocol (RTP)
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 62
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Correct Answer: E Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 63
Data transfer is slow between the source and destination. The quality of service requested by the transport layer in the OSI reference model is not being maintained. To fix this issue, at which layer should the troubleshooting process begin?
A. presentation
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. physical
Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Which protocols are found in the network layer of the OSI reference model and are responsible for path determination and traffic switching?
A. LAN
B. routing
C. WAN
D. network
Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config D. show version
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Exam E QUESTION 1
What are two reasons that the CertifyMe network administrator would use access lists?
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QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name of description name or description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.
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QUESTION 3

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QUESTION 4

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QUESTION 5
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1.
The high level testing commands such as debug that allow access should be conducted under enable mode

2.
Access to configuration commands under configure terminal

3.
The command to set the system name is hostname

4.
Configure vlan, interface vlan 1 may be used to configure details in vlan

5.
Input no shutdown under interface configure mode to activate interface

6.
Use command ip address to configure IP address, and sets the switch management

7.
Use command ip default-gateway to configure default gateway
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.TIS-PCA is sending packets to the FTP server.Consider the packets as they leave TIS-RA interface Fa0/0 forwards TIS-RB.Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.

Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
More often than not , in the process of the source host communicating with the destination host, the source host will consider that the IP address of the destination host and its own IP address are in the same network segment, so it will send broadcast ARP request. In this subject, in the process of TIS-PCA sending data packets to FTP Server, TIS-PCA will first send broadcast ARP request to FTP Server, TIS-PCA itself will also receive this broadcast ARP request and find that the IP address of the destination host is in another subnet, so it will send request using the MAC address of interface Fa0/0 of its own.
QUESTION 7
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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
As a CCNA candidate, you need to know EIGRP very well. Which tables of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets? Please choose two appropriate tables and drag the items to the proper locations.
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Correct Answer:

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Explanation/Reference:
Only the neighbor table and the topology table of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets.
QUESTION 9

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QUESTION 10

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QUESTION 11
As the network administrator, you are required to configure the network security policy, And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch SWCertifyMe1 to meet this policy? Please choose appropriate commands and drag the items to the proper locations.
Select and Place: Correct Answer:
Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Basically speaking, the function of Port Security is to remember the MAC address of the NIC connected to the switch port and allows this MAC address to use this port.
If other NICs attempt to cross this port to connect to the switch, Port Security function will disable this port. switchport port-security maximum {max # of MAC addresses allowed}: This parameter will allow each port
to bind more MAC addresses, not only one. switchport port-security violation {shutdown | restrict | protect}: This command tells the switch that how to deal with the situation when the number of MAC addresses accessed exceeds the desired maximum number.
This port is disabled by default.
QUESTION 12

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QUESTION 13

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QUESTION 14

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QUESTION 15 Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

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Explanation/Reference:
NAT addresses can be divided into two categories: inside network and outside network which are defined based on the NAT functions. The device that has NAT functions connects the inside and the outside network like a bridge, the NIC connected to the inside network is called “inside” , the NIC connected to the outside network is called “outside”, that is to say, the inside addresses are used by the inside network devices, while the outside addresses are used by the outside network devices. Addresses can also be divided into local and global addresses. Local address refers to the address that can be seen and used by the inside network devices; while global address refers to the address that can be seen and used by the outside network devices. These four addresses are :
Inside local address is the IP address used by the inside network devices, which is often a private address.
Inside global address is a public address provided by ISP. It is often used when the inside network devices
communicate with the outside network devices.
Outside local address is the address used by the outside network device as it appears to the inside
network device. It is not necessarily a public network address.
Outside global address is the real address used by the outside network devices.

IP packets sent from the inside network devices regard “inside local address” as the source address and
“outside local address” as the destination address. When the packets reach the “inside” interface of the
NAT equipment, the addresses will be translated into “inside global address” and “outside global address” ,
the packets will be out from the “outside” interface. In the same way, IP packets sent from the outside
network devices regard “outside global address” as the source address and “inside global address” as the
destination address. When the packets reach the “outside” interface of the NAT equipment, the addresses
will be translated into “outside local address” and “inside local address”, the packets will be out from the
“inside” interface.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION 17

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QUESTION 18
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QUESTION 19

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QUESTION 20

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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
The Missouri branch office router is connected through its s0 interface to the Alabama Headquarters router s1 interface.The Alabama router has two LANs. Missouri user obtain internet access through the Headquarters router. The network interfaces in the topology are addressed as follows:
Missouri: e0-192.168.35.33/28; Alabama: e0-192.168.35.49/28 e1-192.168.35.65/28 s1-192.168.35.34/28 The accounting server has the address of 192.168.35.66/28.Match the access list conditions on the left
with the goals on the right.(Not all options on the left are used.)
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Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Please study the diagram carefully, and then drag and drop the network user application to the appropriate description of its primary use(Not all options are used.)
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Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24
Drag the description on the left to the routing protocol on the right.(Not all options are used.)
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Correct Answer: Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
EIGRP is a private CISCO protocol, combining the advantages of the Link State Routing Protocol and the Distance Vector Routing Protocol, the default administrative distance is 90. EIGRP adopts Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) to achieve fast convergence , supports Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM) and uses multicast and unicast instead of broadcast to communicate between routers. OSPF(Open Shortest Path First) is an Interior Gateway Protocol, which can be used for route decision in a single autonomous system. Compared to RIP, OSPF is a Link State Routing Protocol. By default, OSPF calculates the cost based on the bandwidth configured on interface , the higher the bandwidth, the lower the cost.
QUESTION 25
As a CCNA candidate, you need to use a telnet session often. What are two characteristics of Telnet?
Please choose two appropriate statements and drag the items to the proper locations.
Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Telnet, by default, does not encrypt any data sent over the connection (including passwords), and so it is often practical to eavesdrop on the communications and use the password later for malicious purposes; anybody who has access to a router, switch, hub or gateway located on the network between the two hosts where Telnet is being used can intercept the packets passing by and obtain login and password information (and whatever else is typed) with any of several common utilities. If a remote device wants to access the destination device through Telnet, the destination device must be configured to support Telnet connections.
QUESTION 26

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QUESTION 27

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QUESTION 28
As a CCNA candidate, you are required to have a firm understanding of the OSI model. At which layers of the OSI model do Wide Area Networks operate in? Please drag the items to the proper locations.
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Correct Answer:

Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A WAN is a data communications network that covers a relatively broad geographic area and that often uses transmission facilities provided by common carriers, such as telephone companies. WAN technologies generally function at the lower two layers of the OSI reference model: the physical layer and the data link layer as shown below.

Note: Occasionally WAN’s would also be considered to operate at layer 3, but since this question asked for only 2 choices, layers 1 and 2 are better choices.

Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 30
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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 32
This topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete the topology.
Drag the appropriate device icons to the labeled Device
Drag the appropriate connections to the locations labeled Connections.
Drag the appropriate IP addresses to the locations labeled IP address

main router
int f0/0 ip address 192.168.152.177 /28
int s0/0 ip address 192.168.152.161 /28

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Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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