Cisco 642-066 Practice Exam, Sale Latest Release Cisco 642-066 Questions On Sale

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QUESTION 66
Exhibit:

You work as a network engineer at Certkiller .com. You study the exhibit carefully. Which two of these accurately describe this router’s supervisor redundancy status? (Choose two.)
A. The primary supervisor was reloaded nine seconds ago
B. SSO redundancy is being used
C. The primary supervisor is unavailable
D. The Second supervisor is unavailable
E. Both supervisors are active

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Which command retrieves and displays information about each Cisco product in the form of a UDI?
A. Show status
B. Show environment
C. Show hardware
D. Show inventory

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
What is required to enable fragmentation of large FTP packets when voice quality on the network is affected by FTP transfers?
A. Configure TCP header compression on interface
B. Configure MPL on the Frame Relay interfaces
C. Configure FRF .12 fragmentation on the Frame Relay interfaces
D. Fragmentation is not supported with service internetworking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit. In analyzing the configuration of the router, which three of these statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Neighbor 172.16.32.15 will receive VPNv4 routes.
B. Neighbor 172.16.32.15 will receive Internet routes.
C. Neighbor 172.16.32.27 will receive VPNv4 routes.
D. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive both VPNv4 and Internet routes.
E. Neighbor 172.16.32.14 will receive VPNv4 routes.
F. Neighbor 172.16.32.27 will receive Internet routes.

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
You are working with Certkiller .com. who has identified the following IP applications on their network: IP voice and voice signaling, streaming video, PeopleSoft, Microsoft SQL, e-mail, and Internet traffic. If the voice traffic was classified as EF and AF31, the e-mail was classified as AF11, and the Internet traffic was classified as DSCP 0, how would the transactional traffic represented as PeopleSoft and Microsoft SQL be classified?
A. DSCP AF21
B. DSCP CS4
C. DSCP AF33
D. DSCP AF13

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Which one of these class maps was configured to match traffic for CS5?
A. router#show class-map passClass Map match-all real-time (id 2)Match ip dscp 40
B. router#show class-map forwardClass Map match-all forward (id 3)Match ip dscp 18
C. router#show class-map real-timeClass Map match-all block (id 5)Match ip dscp 16
D. router#show class-map blockClass Map match-all block (id 4)Match ip dscp 43

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
When you enter the interface command auto qos voip cisco-phone on a port at the edge of a network, how does the Cisco Catalyst switch detect if a Cisco IP Phone is connected to the port?
A. by using RTP hello messages between the switch port and the Cisco IP Phone
B. by snooping the incoming 802.1Q VLAN tag
C. by using CDP
D. by snooping the CoS marking on the incoming frames
E. by using DHCP snooping

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Referring to the partial Cisco Catalyst switch configuration shown, which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will be able to communicate with hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3.
B. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1 and 1/2 can communicate with each other.
C. Hosts connected to interface fastethernet 1/1, 1/2, and 1/3 can communicate with each other.
D. A router connected to the fastethernet 1/4 interface will not be able to communicate with the host connected to interface fastethernet 1/3.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74
Which keyword is used with the show ip bgp neighbors [keyword] command to display all routes that are received and accepted from a neighbor?
A. paths
B. accepted-routes
C. advertised-routes
D. routes
E. received-routes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Which tool allows a LAN client to determine which router should be the first hop to a particular remote destination, allowing simplified client configuration and processing without creating a single point of failure?
A. Proxy ARP
B. IRDP
C. VRRP
D. Dynamic Routing Protocol

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
You are working with a client to classify the different types of application traffic they will have on their network and to assign a QoS value to each traffic flow. The client has identified the following applications: Internet traffic, Oracle, network-based backups, AOL Instant Messenger, IP routing, voice, and voice signaling. Given these types of applications, how many different classes will need to be configured in QoS?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 9
D. 5

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which of these tools should you use to compress VoIP packets on a low-speed Frame Relay circuit?
A. FRF.9 payload compression
B. Cisco proprietary payload compression
C. Predictor payload compression
D. RTP header compression
E. TCP header compression

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
What is the purpose of the int-num variable in the Cisco IOS interface configuration command mpls l2transport route when you configure a Cisco 7600 Series router to do Ethernet over MPLS?
A. It specifies the interface address of the remote router.
B. It specifies the incoming interface of the Layer 2 traffic to be transported over the MPLS backbone.
C. It specifies the outgoing interface through which to route the EoMPLS traffic.
D. It specifies the desired VLAN interface number.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been enabled on router Certkiller 1. Which of these statements is correct regarding the output display shown in the exhibit?

A. CEF switching is not needed for MPLS operation.
B. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on ingress interfaces that are receiving IP packets on which the ingress LSR performs the label imposition process.
C. Interface-level CEF switching is needed only on egress interfaces that are sending IP packets on which the egress LSR performs the label imposition process.
D. CEF switching is only needed to forward labeled packets.
E. CEF switching is needed on both ingress and egress interfaces on which MPLS is enabled.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
When HSRP is configured on a network, which two of these items are provided, which are shared between the routers that run HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. shared single interface
B. UDP-based hello packets
C. MAC address
D. TCP-based hello packets
E. IP address

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
On the Catalyst 6500 Series switch, which command is used to establish a console connection to the Firewall Services Module?
A. ssh
B. connect
C. login
D. session
E. telnet

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. You have a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router directly connected to a service provider cloud. You want to set up dual connectivity into the corporate network. Which protocol must you configure?

A. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
B. Multigroup Hot Standby Router Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Gateway Load Balancing Protocol

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
On a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series switch, the fail LED is lit for one if its two power supplies. Which command would you use to check on this problem?
A. show diagnostic content
B. show module
C. show errdisable detect
D. show hardware
E. show environment

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit. Two switches connected to each other are having serious performance issues on the link. Which command(s) can you issue at switch B to correct this problem?

A. set port duplex 1/1 full
B. no set port duplex 1/1 autoset port duplex 1/1 full
C. no set port duplex 1/1 auto
D. set port speed 1/1 10set port duplex 1/1 full

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Refer to the exhibit. You are working with a client to deploy QoS on their WAN. They would like to use a five-class WAN-edge strategy. The classes will include voice, call signaling, critical data, data, and scavenger. Their individual WAN links are 512 Kb. When they try to attach the service policy WAN-EDGE to the interface multilink1, the router returns an error message. Which command should you add to the interface configuration to allow the service policy statement to be configured?

A. bandwidth 512
B. max-bandwidth 75
C. max-reserved-bandwidth 100
D. bandwidth 100
E. max-reserved-bandwidth 512
F. max-bandwidth 100

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
You are configuring the Cisco IOS Firewall Websense URL Filtering feature set on a Cisco 3800 Series ISR. What would the Cisco IOS command ip urlfilter exclusive-domain permit www.cisco.com do?
A. Specifies the URL for the location of the Firewall Websense URL filtering server.
B. Specifies the only domain for which traffic should be allowed.
C. Specifies the domain for which the firewall should permit traffic without sending lookup requests.
D. Specifies that the designated domain receives exclusive traffic priorities.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
How many subnets are possible in an enterprise that has just been assigned an IPv6 prefix by its ISP?
A. 65536
B. 256
C. 1024
D. 16777216
E. 16384
F. 4096

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet is Layer 3-switched from a source in one VLAN to a destination in another VLAN, which field in a packet will be rewritten?
A. Layer 3 transport protocol
B. Layer 3 TTL
C. Layer 3 destination address
D. Layer 2 TTL
E. Layer 3 source address

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Which three of these items are found within the router advertisement message of IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. flags indicating the kind of autoconfiguration that can be done by hosts
B. default router information
C. /64 prefix that can be used on the link and the lifetime of the prefix
D. IPv6 DHCP server address information
E. IPv6 DNS server address information

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
What is the most likely reason that an IBGP route that has been selected as a best route is not entered into the IP routing table?
A. Route reflectors are not passing updates properly.
B. BGP synchronization has been enabled.
C. The next-hop address is unreachable.
D. No loopback interface has been configured on a router.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which two statements are correct in verifying SPFv3 IPv6 routing configurations? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 is enabled per-link, not per-network.
B. When configuring a broadcast interface, OSPFv3 requires a list of OSPFv3 neighbors to be manually configured.
C. OSPFv3 requires router to be running CEF.
D. OSPFv3 router ID is now 128 bits instead of 32 bits.
E. OSPFv3 area ID and link-state ID are now 128 bits instead of 32 bits.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
With a VPN Accelerator Module 2+ (VAM2+) installed in a Cisco 7200 series router, what will be the resulting action when entering the command no crypto engine accelerator slot number?
A. disables OIR on the VAM2+ module
B. removes the VAM2+ crypto engine feature and disables the associated configuration commands from the router
C. disables dual VAM2+ hardware stateful failover capabilities
D. disables the crypto engine hardware acceleration, resulting in all crypto functions to be performed in software

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit. For the given configuration, on packets leaving the router on interface FastEthernet0/0 that matches the high traffic class, what will the MPLS experimental bit be set to?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 0
E. 1
F. 2

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
On a Cisco Catalyst switch, which configuration command is used to apply a VACL named “test” to filter the traffic within VLAN100?
A. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test out
B. vlan filter test vlan-list 100
C. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test in
D. vlan access-map test 100
E. interface vlan 100 ip access-group test

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
Which of these commands can you use to show if an operational Catalyst switch port is set for autonegotiation of speed and duplex when running Cisco IOS software?
A. show port network <interface>
B. show running-config
C. show controllers Ethernet-controller <interface>
D. show interfaces <interface>
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Certkiller .com recently acquired a smaller competitor. The acquired company is not currently using Cisco routers, so you have connected the two WANs via an authenticated PPP link. After configuring both routers, issuing the show interface s0/0 command on the Cisco router shows the interface to be in the up/ down state. Which two of these are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. CHAP passwords do not match.
B. IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
C. Bandwidth statements do not match.
D. CDP versions do not match.
E. MTUs do not match.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
Which keyword is used with the debug ipv6 [keyword] command to troubleshoot neighbor discovery problems?
A. transaction
B. icmp
C. discovery
D. packet
E. nd

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Which command displays only those entries in a BGP table with specific AS_PATH attributes?
A. show ip bgp inconsistent-as
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp community-list
D. show ip bgp regexp

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configuration changes will result in Router Certkiller A peering with
neighbor Router Certkiller B.
B using address 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A. Use a route reflector to allow the routes to be propagated correctly.
B. Configure Router Certkiller A and Router Certkiller B in the same AS.
C. Use the neighbor next-hop-self command to allow the routers to peer using their loopback addresses instead of their directly connected addresses.
D. Use the no synchronization command to allow the neighbor relationship to be established without an IGP route.
E. Use the neighbor ebgp-multihop command to override the one-hop EBGP limit.
F. Use a confederation to make Router Certkiller A and Router Certkiller B appear to be IBGP neighbors.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Cisco 642-066 Practice Exam, Sale Latest Release Cisco 642-066 Questions On Sale